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"Master, will there only be a few people saved?"  (Luke 13:23)

Someone once asked the Savior, “Lord, will there only be a few people saved” to which the Messiah answered “Strive to enter at the Narrow Gate, for many I tell you will seek to enter and will not be able to" (Luke 13:23-24).... 

"Many will say to Me on that day, ' Lord, Lord,...and then I will declare to them, I never knew you; depart from me you who practice LAWLESSNESS" (Matt 7:22-23)  - Read More  

The Heavenly Father's Name

Exo 3:15  Elohim, furthermore, said to Moses, "Yahuweh, ....' This is My name forever, and this is My memorial-name to all generations.

Did you know that the Heavenly Father put His Name in His book, the Bible, over 6,823 times? Why is it than that most people that read the Bible, Jew and Christian alike, never heard of the Almighty's Name? Is it important that you know the heavenly Fathe's Name? You be the judge Click here to read the articles and view the video.

Psa 83:18 That they may know that You alone, whose name is Yahuweh, Are the Most High over all the earth.

Isa 52:6 "Therefore My people shall know My name; therefore in that day I am the one who is speaking, 'Here I am.'"

       Mal 3:16 Then those who feared Yahuweh spoke to one another, and Yahuweh gave attention and heard it, and a book of remembrance was written before Him for those who fear Yahuweh and who esteem His name.

       Mat 6:9 "Pray, then, in this way: 'Our Father who is in heaven, Hallowed be Your name.

       Rom 9:17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, "for this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate my power in you and that My Name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth."

Did you know that the name 'Jesus' doesn't appear in the 1611 KJV Bible, not one single time!

Of course I'm not referring to the King James Bible used today, which is roughly the 25th revision of the original 1611 version. I'm referring to the original 1611 KJV.The name Jesus IS NOT in there one single time. Why? Read on to find the answer.

Are you aware that the letter “J” did not exist in any language on the face of the  earth until the year 1520 A.D, and it did not come into popular use for roughly another 100 years. Consequently when the 1611 KJV was written the letter 'J' did not appear in it, not one single time.. Let me repeat that, “the original 1611 King James Bible does not contain the letter 'J' not even one time. If the letter 'J' didn't exist until the year 1520, and was never used in the 1611 King James Bible, than how could the Messiah's name have been pronounce “Jesus”? The answer is “it wasn't”. The One who died for the sins of Israel was never called by the name 'Jesus', nor did he or anyone else in his day ever hear the name 'Jesus'. Why? Because the name 'Jesus' would not have existed for roughly another 1,500 years. With that being the case then what name was Peter talking about when he said

Act 4:12  Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved

If the name 'Jesus' did not exist when Peter made this statement then what is the name by which we must be saved? For the answer as to what name it is that we must call on to be saved  click here.

               The Rapture

Who will be taken and Who will be left

The answer is almost sure to shock you - "click here"

"I said YOU are gods"  John 10:34

Who are these "gods" that the Messiah is referring to?

When the Jews accused the Messiah of claiming to be God he quoted Psalm 82:6 and asked the question "If He, that is the Heavenly Father Yahuweh, called them, that is the judges of Israel, gods then why do you accuse me of blasphemy for saying that I am the Son of God?"

Most Christians are unaware of the fact that along with the judges of Israel being called 'gods' the angels, Moses, and Samuel the prophet are also referred to as 'gods' in the Bible. How is that possible when Yahuweh Himself tells us that "there is no God but Him (Isaiah 43:10)?   "click here"  to find out the answer to this very important question.

        The Trinity  -  Really?

 

With billions of Christians believing in a Triune god, that is a 3 in 1 god known as the  "Trinity" one would think that it's talked about throughout the entire Bible, and yet the fact is that such terms as "the Trinity", 'god the Son', 'god the Holy Spirit' or the 1st and 2nd persons of anything, are never mentioned in the Bible, not one single time. Why is that? Click here for the answer.

What 'must' we believe about the Messiah !

Please turn in your Bble to the passage where we're asked to believe that the Messiah Yahoshua is the 'god/man'. 
Please turn in your Bible to the passage where we're asked to believe that the Messiah Yahoshua is the 'god/man'. Can't  find it?  How about the passage that tells us that the Messiah is the 2nd person of the Triune godhead?  You say that's not there either?  How about the passage that calls Messiah "god the son". No, again that term is never found in the Bible. Surely the word "Trinity" is on every page of the Bible. What's that, the word "Trinity" is never mentioned in the Bible! How is that possible?  The fact is you're not going to find any of those phrases ever mentioned in the Bible and yet such terms are used by a majority of Christianity today.

If such terms as god/man, god the son. or the 2nd person of the Triune godhead or Trinity are never mentioned in the Bible then what exactly are we told to believe about the Messiah Yahoshua? In this article we'll be taking a look at everything the Bible tells us about the Messiah and what it is we MUST believe about Him in order to be saved.  To view the article "click here".  

 

Rom 10:4 - Isn't the Messiah the "end" to the Law?

Rom 10:4 For Messiah is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

How was the Messiah made the 'end' of the Law for us? I think if we take a look at how this word 'end' is used in other passages and then at how it is that the Messiah is the "end" of the Law for us, it will become clear that Paul is in no way implying that the Law has 'ended'.

The word 'end' used here is the Greek word "telos", and it's #5056 in the Strong's Concordance,

In all of the following examples the same word 'telos' is underlined. We'll compare the King James Version (KJV) with the New American Standard Version (NASV).

1Ti 1:5 Now the end of the commandment is charity out of a pure heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned: (KJV)

1Ti 1:5 But the goal of our instruction is love from a pure heart and a good conscience and a sincere faith. (NASV)

1Pe 1:9 Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls (KJV)

1Pe 1:9 obtaining as the outcome of your faith the salvation of your souls. (NASV)

Jam 5:11 Behold, we count them happy which endure. Ye have heard of the patience of Job, and have seen the end of Yahuweh (the Lord); that Yahuweh is very pitiful, and of tender mercy. (KJV)

Jam 5:11 We count those blessed who endured. You have heard of the endurance of Job and have seen the outcome of Yahuweh's dealings, that Yahuweh is full of compassion and is merciful. (NASV)

Heb 13:7 Remember them which have the rule over you, who have spoken unto you the word of Yahuweh: whose faith follow, considering the end of their conversation. (KJV)

Heb 13:7 Remember those who led you, who spoke the word of Yahuweh to you; and considering the result of their conduct, imitate their faith. (NASV)

So we see that we could have just as correctly translated this word "telos" as:  goal, outcome, or result, any one of which I believe would have made the passage much easier to understand.

Let me explain why I say that.

The apostle Paul in writing to the Romans said to them a number of things concerning the Law, for instance:

In Romans chapter 2, Paul makes it extremely clear that if someone, that would be one of the saints in Rome (Rom 1:7) "and us", does not obey the Law they will perish. It will only be those that actually obey the Law that will be justified on Judgment Day.

Rom 2:11 For there is no partiality with Yahuweh. (meaning the same applies to the Jew and gentile alike)

Rom 2:12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;

Rom 2:13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before Yahuweh , but the doers of the Law will be justified.

How may different ways are there in understanding what Paul just said here? The answer is one, and that is, if you don't obey the Law you will perish. Does this in anyway sounds as if he's telling the saints in Rome, or us, that the Law "ended"?

On to Romans chapter 3, after explaining how we're justified by 'faith' (Rom 3:28) and realizing how people would distort his words, Paul goes on to ask the question,

Rom 3:31 Do we then nullify the Law through faith? Yahuweh forbid! On the contrary, we establish the Law.

In Romans chapter 6, which is written to the same people that chapter 10 was written to, Paul sounding somewhat excited, asks the question

Rom 6:1 What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin so that grace may increase?

Sin is a violation of the Heavenly Father's Law (1 John 3:4), and it was because we've sinned, that is violated the Almighty's Law, that the Messiah had to suffer and die as he did. If we understated that then I believe we might get as excited as Paul seems to have gotten when as he answers his own question.

Rom 6:2 Yahuweh Forbid! How shall we who died to sin still live in it any longer?

I'll repeat that one more time for those that might not have heard it the first time, "Yahuweh Forbid" that we should continue to violate the Law, it was because of our sins that Messiah had to died a torturous death, and Yahuweh will not tolerate those that continue to sin.

Does anything we've read thus far in Romans sound as if Paul's telling the Romans that the Law has "ended"? Of course not.

We could, but we won't, go on to take a look at other things Paul said to the Romans concerning the Law, such as:

  • "sin shall not be master over you" (Rom 6:14),

  • "Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace? Yahuweh Forbid! (Rom 6:15),

  • "For the wages of sin is death" (Rom 6:23),

  • "the Law is holy, and the commandment is holy and righteous and good." (Rom 7:12),

  • was it the Law that brought death? "Yahuweh Forbid! ...it was sin," our breaking of the Law (Rom 7:13)


But if you would turn now to Rom 8:3-4 and we'll take a look at the reason Paul tells us the Messiah is the 'goal, outcome, or result' of the Law.

Rom 8:3 For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, Yahuweh did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh,

Rom 8:4 so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.

The Law 'required' the death of the sinner, and Messiah 'fulfilled' that requirement.

It was "sin" the Messiah died to save us from, not from the Law itself?

So in realizing the Messiah died to "fulfill the requirement of the Law in us," and the fact that we are to obey the Law even as the Messiah obeyed it (1 John 2:6). To say, "the Messiah is the 'goal' rather then the 'end' of the Law to all that believe" (Rom 10:4), would clear up a lot of the confusion some people have concerning Rom 10:4.

To view a complete list of passages concerning the Law that are often times misunderstood see “The Hard Sayings of Paul” - Part 2